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If I bought a primary residence now. Can I buy again 2 to 4 years later in the same city as primary residences(on the mortgage)?
And then I rent out the first house and move to the one just bought. 2 years later, I will sell the one I am living in with no Tax(assuming the housing value increase) and move back to the first house?
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I think that was answered in your other thread. And when you go back to that thread...I want to add the broker rep who came out to see our landlord bud's property that he was refinancing after living in it, then renting it as you plan to do said nothing. She sent in the paperwork, even though the tenant was telling her the landlord did not live there, just sending utility bills to that address in his name. Then..boom! He got nailed after getting the loan because the house he had lived in was no longer owner occupied. Check with a tax advisor please...and your lender before you suffer his fate. You may not have a problem, or you may. I can see from the posts in the other thread folks aren't understanding the problems that can cause if you are caught. Mortgage brokers aren't exactly non-interested parties sometimes. If one tells you that you can do that without knowing your lender's policies, be aware they will deny all later on. It will be in your lap then.
One other thing (more minor) is that you have to get a different kind of homeowner's insurance for a non-owner-occupied home (rental) ; and it costs a lot more. If you don't change to that when you move out, the insurance company won't know, but if you ever have a significant claim and they investigate and find out, then they won't cover your claim.
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