LANDLORD SELLING HOUSEMy question involves my rights as a tenant when my landlord notified me by text that due to divorce they were going to put the house on the market and according to her realtor we should have 30 to 45 days after the sale to vacate. We signed a 1 year lease agreement effective from April 1, 2011 to March 31, 2012. In March of 2012 we were asked via text if we wanted to renew the lease with a $500 per month increase. We responded that we could not afford that but could do $1950. They responded that they would accept $1950 for six months, but would require $2050 for the next six months. We asked if a one year lease agreement for $2000 per month would be acceptable. They responded that it would be and they would bring by the new lease agreement to sign. In April 2012 we started paying $2000 per month, but they never brought the new lease agreement by to sign, claiming they have been to busy. Now that we have been informed that they plan to sell, do I have a lease allowing me to stay through the remainder. My thoughts are that if the landlord is under the assumption that we do not have a binding lease agreement since they never brought it to sign, then I have been overpaying for 8 months and they owe me $2400. If they are under the assumption that we have a binding agreement, then I can stay through the lease term or they can buy me out. If it matters, I still have all of the text messages. Please help.October 23 2012 - San Antonio00YesReport a ProblemProblemSelect oneOffensive contentIrrelevant contentSpam (pure self-promotion)OtherDetailsYour emailPlease enter a valid email address.Submit CancelContent flaggedWe will review this content. Thanks for helping make the site more useful to everyone. To learn more, read Zillow's Good Neighbor Policy.We're sorry. This service is temporarily unavailable. Please come back later and try again.