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Primary residence purchase and loan modification

My husband and I are looking to buy a sfr as our primary residence with a FHA loan.  We own a condo, but it's under my name only.  My husband filed bankruptcy in 2005 and is working on his credit score which is around 660.  Mine is 780.  We would like to take advantage of a first time homebuyers purchase under his name, but am wondering if it could apply since I've owned homes in the past.  We plan on renting our condo, but have been told that the rental income will not apply to us qualifying toward a new loan, therefore we only qualify for $407k.  We are also trying to do a loan modification on our condo, but the lender has been absolutely uncorporative to work with.  We are paying on a $405k loan, yet they tell us that we don't qualify for a $328k loan.  So my question is two fold.  Can anyone help with a loan modification and is there a way to include the rental income to qualify for more for our new hopeful primary residence?

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April 05 - Carmel Valley

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Profile picture for Clearpoint
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Since October 2009

All I can say is WHAT?

You've owned a home in the last 3 years so your not a first time homeowner and don't qaulify for the tax credit.  Now lets talk about the modification.  A modification is for individuals that have verifiable hardships and are at risk of loosing their primary residence.  So why do you need one if you can afford to purchase a new home? Why would a bank want to modify a loan you can pay?  Do you really think a modification is simply offered up as a way for you to save money so you can rent it?  It sounds like your trying to manipulate the system.

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April 05
My husband is a first time homebuyer.  I bought this condo on my own and now we are taking care of both our mothers, which in itself is difficult.  We just want to combine our first and HELOC loan and the bank won't help.  I am not trying to do anything to manipulate anything.  I am just trying to work with the bank to combine my loan into something more fixed, then the interest only loan I have now.  Now my husband and I would like to purchase a home together and he has never bought a house before.  Wouldn't he qualify for a first time homebuyer credit?  And I first have worked for a law firm, second, would never manipulate anything for anything because I believe in karma and third you are innocent until proven guilty. You have me pegged as guilty right off the bat.  Maybe if you knew more, you wouldn't be so quick to judge.  That's what wrong with today's world.  I am trying to do the right thing and am asking for advice, not for a guilt trip or criticism.  Can anyone just help with advice?  My questions are from not knowing.
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April 05
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April 07
Profile picture for Rob Cochems
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Roy, maybe you should read the good neighbor policy and pay attention to the part about SPAM.


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April 07
Profile picture for wetdawgs
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No, neither you nor your husband would be considered a first time buyer.  Here's a link to one of the many sites explaining the rules.

FAQ #2:
What is the definition of a first-time home buyer?
The law defines "first-time home buyer" as a buyer who has not owned a principal residence during the three-year period prior to the purchase.For married taxpayers, the law tests the homeownership history of both the home buyer and his/her spouse.

For example, if you have not owned a home in the past three years but your spouse has owned a principal residence, neither you nor your spouse qualifies for the first-time home buyer tax credit.


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April 07
You won't be able to take advantage of the first time home buyer program because this is your second property. As for the rental helping with income.. you would have to prove your've had landlord experience prior. Otherwise the income will not be sufficient to offset your DTI.
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April 11
 

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