Should I allow my pmts to fall behind in order to be considered for a loan mod?My 1st is an conventional ARM interest only with a balloon due in 2 years. My 2nd is a conventional. I originally planned to use equity to refinance after 3-4 years, but that plan is nil. I've even considered using my 1st payment to pay down my 2nd and create more equity, but I am worried about the implications this will have on my credit. I am not sure how to resolve this without foreclosing. v/r CliffJanuary 06 2010 - Arlington00YesReport a ProblemProblemSelect oneOffensive contentIrrelevant contentSpam (pure self-promotion)OtherDetailsYour emailPlease enter a valid email address.Submit CancelContent flaggedWe will review this content. Thanks for helping make the site more useful to everyone. To learn more, read Zillow's Good Neighbor Policy.We're sorry. This service is temporarily unavailable. Please come back later and try again.