- Find a Real Estate Professional
- Realtors®
- Mortgage Lenders
- Home Improvement Pros
- Other Real Estate Services
- Review an Agent, Lender or Pro
- Marketing on Zillow
- Real Estate Agent Advertising
- Join the Professional Directory
- Popular
- Real Estate Market Reports
- More
Answers (4)

- James Johnson, "theFHAloanguy"
- Contributions:15
Both responses are correct but the forgot to mention the "move along buyer" credit. that credit is $6500 and your friend may qualify. BTW only if he hurries.

- wetdawgs
- Contributions:26834
A first time home buyer (eligible for $8000) may not have owned a home in the last three years, it has nothing to do with purchase date.
A repeat home buyer (eligbile for $6500) must have owned and lived in their home for at least five of the last eight years.
Your friend has owned a home so does not qualify as a first time buyer unless the house he owns was not his primary residence at any time (any minute) in the last three years.
A repeat home buyer (eligbile for $6500) must have owned and lived in their home for at least five of the last eight years.
Your friend has owned a home so does not qualify as a first time buyer unless the house he owns was not his primary residence at any time (any minute) in the last three years.

- Matt Tarka, "Matt Tarka"
- Contributions:16
If you are referring to the first time home buyer tax credit, the definition is as follows:
The law defines "first-time home buyer" as a buyer who has not owned a principal residence during the three-year period prior to the purchase. For married taxpayers, the law tests the homeownership history of both the home buyer and his/her spouse.
For example, if you have not owned a home in the past three years but your spouse has owned a principal residence, neither you nor your spouse qualifies for the first-time home buyer tax credit. However, IRS Notice 2009-12 allows unmarried joint purchasers to allocate the credit amount to any buyer who qualifies as a first-time buyer, such as may occur if a parent jointly purchases a home with a son or daughter. Ownership of a vacation home or rental property not used as a principal residence does not disqualify a buyer as a first-time home buyer.
The law defines "first-time home buyer" as a buyer who has not owned a principal residence during the three-year period prior to the purchase. For married taxpayers, the law tests the homeownership history of both the home buyer and his/her spouse.
For example, if you have not owned a home in the past three years but your spouse has owned a principal residence, neither you nor your spouse qualifies for the first-time home buyer tax credit. However, IRS Notice 2009-12 allows unmarried joint purchasers to allocate the credit amount to any buyer who qualifies as a first-time buyer, such as may occur if a parent jointly purchases a home with a son or daughter. Ownership of a vacation home or rental property not used as a principal residence does not disqualify a buyer as a first-time home buyer.

- HomeSand.net, "White Picture"
- Contributions:4396
FALSE!

True or False - first time home buyer may own a home if bought more than 5 years ago.
Stating a discriminatory preference in an advertisement for housing is illegal. If you think this content is discriminatory or otherwise inappropriate and feel it should be removed from Zillow, please let us know by completing the information above.
We will review this content. Thanks for helping make the site more useful to everyone. To learn more, read Zillow's Good Neighbor Policy.