Presently have 30yr mortgage, originated 2000. Var 5/1 and adjusts in about 3 months. Present lender is offering a conversion to 15 year fixed at current rate of 4.75. We would need to pay 1% of oustanding principal. Up front cost...cannot roll into current instrument. Sizeable initial outlay for us. We can tolerate increased mo. payment but concerned with having to also do the 1%. Equity to value in home is about 3-1 using Zillow estimate. Credit scores very good.Could we do as well or better with refinance from another lender and ability to roll in some of closing costs? Or are we better off remaining with current lender and absorbing 1%?Thank You for any advice.